Ophthalmology MCQs with Answers


Ophthalmology MCQs with Answers

1. Safe Strategy includes all of the following except

a) Screening

b) Antibiotics

c) Face washing

d) Environmental Improvement


2. True about Trachoma is:

a) Is a disease of high infectivity

b) Prevalence of severe and moderate trachoma in >1% in children less than 10 years is indicated for mass treatment

c) Irritant like kajal also predispose

d) It is the non-avoidable cause of blindness.


3. In the grading of Trachoma, Trachomatous Inflammation-follicular is defined as the presence of:

a) Five or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva

b) Three or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva

c) Five or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva

d) Three or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva


4. Mass Treatment of trachoma is undertaken, when the prevalence is more than

a) 3%

b) 5%

c) 6%

d) 10%


5. Single drug treatment recommended for Trachoma control is

a) Azithromycin

b) Tetracycline

c) Erythromycin

d) Penicillin


6. First Clinical Sign of Vitamin A Deficiency is 

a) Night Blindness

b) Conjunctival Xerosis

c) Bitot’s Spot

d) Keratomalacia


7) Daily requirement of Vitamin-A by an adult man is

a) 350 mcg

b) 100 mcg

c) 600 mcg

d) 2000 mcg


8) No. of doses for treatment of Vitamin A deficiency is

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4


9) The most common cause of blindness in Nepal is

a) Cataract

b) Glaucoma

c) Trachoma

d) Vitamin A deficiency


10) WHO defines blindness if the visual acuity is less than

a) 1/60

b) 6/60

c) 3/60

4) 6/6


11) All of the following can be seen with ocular adenoviral infection except:

a) Preauricular lymphadenopathy

b) large central geographic corneal erosions

c) Multifocal subepithelial infiltrates.

d)  Enlarged corneal nerves


12) All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

a) indirect ophthalmoscopy

b) computed tomography

c) electrophysiology

d) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)


13) Which of the rectus muscles inserts the closes to the limbus?

a) lateral rectus

b) medial rectus

c) superior rectus

d) inferior rectus


14) Tylosis refers to :

a) loss of lashes

b) misdirection of lashes

c) blocked meibomian orifices

d) hypertrophied drooping lid


15) Retinoscopy is?

a) visualization of retina alone

b) visualization of retina and all other posterior segment contents

c) objective measurement of the refractive error of the patient

d) subjective measurement of the refractive error of the patient


16) Substance deposited in Band Shaped Keratopathy is?

a) calcium phosphate

b) magnesium phosphate

c) magnesium sulphate

d) Iron


17) Which is NOT a feature of 3rd Nerve palsy?

a) Ptosis

b) Diplopia

c) Miosis

d) Outwards Deviation of eye


18)  T dot sign in fluorescent angiography is seen in

a) Progressive macular oedema

b) CSR

c) Arteriovenous shunt

d) Microaneurysms


19) Fluorescein staining would be most useful in

a) Bullous keratopathy

b) Stromal dystrophies

c) Corneal neovascularization

d) Contact lens fitting


20) In fluorescein angiography dye is injected into

a) Ophthalmic artery

b) Retinal artery

c) External carotid

d) Antecubital vein


21) Name the condition in which there is clear irrigation but fluorescein does not leak into the nose 

a) Normal lacrimal passage

b) Blockage of lacrimal passage

c) Upper canalicular block

d) Lower canalicular block


22) The image in indirect ophthalmoscopy is

a) Erect, virtual and magnified

b) Erect, real and magnified

c) Inverted, real and magnified

d) Erect, virtual and normal


23) Direct ophthalmoscopy magnification of the image in comparison to indirect type is times:

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6


24) Direct ophthalmoscope projects:

a) Virtual, erect and magnified image

b) Real, inverted and magnified image

c) Real, erect and condensed image

d) Virtual, inverted and condensed image


25)  The presence of Kayser Fleischer ring is pathognomonic of

a) Keratoconus

b) Lowe’s syndrome

c) Wilson’s disease

d) Albinism


26) Condition which is always bilateral

a) Infantile glaucoma

b) Megalocornea

c) Acute congestive glaucoma

d) All of the above


27) Conditions causing large pupils are all except:

a) Sympathomimetics

b) Alcohol

c) Holmes

d) Horner’s syndrome


28) Earliest sign of siderosis bulbi is:

a) Rusty deposits in the subcapsular epithelium

b) Fleisher’s ring

c) Pigmentary retinopathy

d) Red brown staining of iris


29) The corneal endothelium is best examined by:

a) Keratoscope

b) Distant direct ophthalmoscope

c) Slit lamp

d) Specular microscope


30) Coloured haloes are seen in all except :

a) Glaucoma

b) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

c) Acute anterior uveitis

d) Cataract




1. a) Screening

2. c) Irritant like kajal also predispose 

3. c) Five or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva

4. d) 10% (Indication of mass treatment in Trachoma >10% prevalence of severe and moderate trachoma in children <10 years of age -New Guidelines of WHO)  

5. a) Azithromycin

6. b) Conjunctival Xerosis

7. c) 600 mcg (retinol daily requirement)

8. c) 3 doses (1, 2 and 14th day each)

9. a) Cataract

10. c) 3/60

11. d)  Enlarged corneal nerves

12. d) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

13. b) Medial Rectus

14. d)

15. c) objective measurement of the refractive error of the patient

16. a) calcium phosphate

17. c) Miosis

18. a) Progressive macular oedema

19. d) Contact lens fitting

20. d) Antecubital vein

21. c) Upper canalicular block

22. c) Inverted, real and magnified

23. b) 3

24. a) Virtual, erect and magnified image

25. c) Wilson’s disease

26. b) Megalocornea

27. d) Horner’s syndrome

28. a) Rusty deposits in the subcapsular epithelium

29. d) Specular microscope

30. c) Acute anterior uveitis


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